Answer
FALSE
Work Step by Step
$ln(e)$ is equal to 1. That means, $y=ln(e)$ is equal to $y=1$, and its derivative is zero (y'=0), because the derivative of any constant is $0$. Therefore, the statement is false.
Calculus 10th Edition
by Larson, Ron; Edwards, Bruce H.
Published by
Brooks Cole
ISBN 10:
1-28505-709-0
ISBN 13:
978-1-28505-709-5
Chapter 5 - Logarithmic, Exponential, and Other Transcendental Functions - 5.1 Exercises - Page 326: 102
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