Answer
True
Work Step by Step
By Definition 9.7.3, the $n$th Maclaurin polynomial for $f$ is given by
${p_n}\left( x \right) = f\left( 0 \right) + f'\left( 0 \right)x + \dfrac{{f{\rm{''}}\left( 0 \right)}}{{2!}}{x^2} + \dfrac{{f{\rm{'''}}\left( 0 \right)}}{{3!}}{x^3} + \cdot\cdot\cdot + \dfrac{{{f^{\left( n \right)}}\left( 0 \right)}}{{n!}}{x^n}$
At the $y$-intercept, we have $x=0$ so that ${p_n}\left( 0 \right) = f\left( 0 \right)$. This implies that $f$ and the graph of its Maclaurin polynomial have a common $y$-intercept. Hence, the statement is true.
