Answer
There is an asymptote at $y=1$ and $y=-1$.
Work Step by Step
Both the functions are equal because $g(x)$ shows the equivalent algebraic expression of the function $f(x)$. We can see that there is an asymptote at $y=1$ and $y=-1$.
Algebra and Trigonometry 10th Edition
by Larson, Ron
Published by
Cengage Learning
ISBN 10:
9781337271172
ISBN 13:
978-1-33727-117-2
Chapter 6 - 6.6 - Inverse Trigonometric Functions - 6.6 Exercises - Page 485: 73
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