Answer
$\dfrac{\pi}{2}$
Work Step by Step
Suppose $\theta = \cos^{-1} (0)$
This gives: $\cos \theta=0$
Now, $\theta = \cos^{-1} (0)=\dfrac{\pi}{2}$
Therefore, $\cos^{-1} (0)=\dfrac{\pi}{2}$
Precalculus (6th Edition) Blitzer
by Blitzer, Robert F.
Published by
Pearson
ISBN 10:
0-13446-914-3
ISBN 13:
978-0-13446-914-0
Chapter 4 - Section 4.7 - Inverse Trigonometric Functions - Exercise Set - Page 626: 11
Update this answer!
You can help us out by revising, improving and updating this answer.
Update this answerAfter you claim an answer you’ll have 24 hours to send in a draft. An editor will review the submission and either publish your submission or provide feedback.
