Answer
makes sense
Work Step by Step
This statement makes sense as it describes the correct procedure in finding the exact value of the function. The angle $\theta=\frac{14\pi}{3}=4\pi+\frac{2\pi}{3}$ is in quadrant II with a reference angle of $\pi-\frac{2\pi}{3}=\frac{\pi}{3}$ and since $cos\frac{\pi}{3}=\frac{1}{2}$ and $cos\theta\lt0$, we have $cos\theta=-\frac{1}{2}$.
