Answer
$65$
Work Step by Step
We know that $ n!=1 \cdot 2 \cdot 3 .....(n-1)n $
Thus, we have $\dfrac{40!}{38!}=\dfrac{40 \cdot 39 \cdot 38!}{4 \cdot 3 \cdot 2 \cdot 1 \times 38! }$
$=\dfrac{40 \cdot 39}{24}$
$=65$
Precalculus (6th Edition) Blitzer
by Blitzer, Robert F.
Published by
Pearson
ISBN 10:
0-13446-914-3
ISBN 13:
978-0-13446-914-0
Chapter 10 - Review Exercises - Page 1124: 7
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