Answer
$$\ln 2= \ln (1 \times 2)\neq \ln 1 \ln 2=0.$$
Work Step by Step
The counterexample is
$$\ln 2= \ln (1 \times 2)\neq \ln 1 \ln 2=0.$$
Because $\ln 1=0$.
Calculus (3rd Edition)
by Rogawski, Jon; Adams, Colin
Published by
W. H. Freeman
ISBN 10:
1464125260
ISBN 13:
978-1-46412-526-3
Chapter 7 - Exponential Functions - 7.3 Logarithms and Their Derivatives - Exercises - Page 342: 25
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