Answer
$$ f_y(0,\pi)= 1 $$
Work Step by Step
Since $ f(x,y)=\sin(x^2-y)$, then we have
$$ f_y=-\cos(x^2-y).$$
Hence, we get
$$ f_y(0,\pi)= -\cos (-\pi)=1 $$
Calculus (3rd Edition)
by Rogawski, Jon; Adams, Colin
Published by
W. H. Freeman
ISBN 10:
1464125260
ISBN 13:
978-1-46412-526-3
Chapter 15 - Differentiation in Several Variables - 15.3 Partial Derivatives - Exercises - Page 781: 42
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