Answer
$0$
Work Step by Step
Since we have
$$\lim_{n\to \infty}z_n=\lim_{n\to \infty} \left( \frac{1}{3}\right)^n=0,$$
where we used the fact that $\frac{1}{3}\lt 1$, then the sequence $z_n$ converges to $0$.
Calculus (3rd Edition)
by Rogawski, Jon; Adams, Colin
Published by
W. H. Freeman
ISBN 10:
1464125260
ISBN 13:
978-1-46412-526-3
Chapter 11 - Infinite Series - 11.1 Sequences - Exercises - Page 537: 20
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