Answer
This does not make sense.
Work Step by Step
Please note that the function $y=\cos x$ is not one-to-one on the interval $[-\frac{\pi }{2}, \frac{\pi }{2}]$, so the function does not have an inverse on this interval.
Precalculus (6th Edition) Blitzer
by Blitzer, Robert F.
Published by
Pearson
ISBN 10:
0-13446-914-3
ISBN 13:
978-0-13446-914-0
Chapter 4 - Section 4.7 - Inverse Trigonometric Functions - Exercise Set - Page 628: 116
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