Answer
False, The antiderivative of f(x) is not unique.
Work Step by Step
f(x) has an infinite amount of antiderivatives because each antiderivative differs by a constant or $+C$.
Ex: $f(x) = 2x$
$F(x) = x^2 + C$ Where $C\in\mathbb R$ – It could be $x^{2}$ + 2 or $x^{2}$ - 58, etc.
