Answer
False.
Work Step by Step
False, because if $x=0$, then $f(x)=0^4-1=-1$. Thus, the range is definitely not $(0,\infty)$.
You can help us out by revising, improving and updating this answer.
Update this answerAfter you claim an answer you’ll have 24 hours to send in a draft. An editor will review the submission and either publish your submission or provide feedback.