Precalculus (6th Edition) Blitzer

Published by Pearson
ISBN 10: 0-13446-914-3
ISBN 13: 978-0-13446-914-0

Chapter 3 - Section 3.2 - Exponential Functions - Exercise Set - Page 466: 135

Answer

Makes sense

Work Step by Step

This statement makes sense because an inverse of an exponential function is a logarithmic function. For example, $f(x)=2^x$ will have an inverse of $f^{-1}(x)=log_2(x)$. For $g(x)=2^x+1$, the horizontal asymptote shifts up from $y=0$ to $y=1$, while for $h(x)=log_2(x-2)$, the vertical asymptote shifts from $x=0$ to $x=2$
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