Answer
The statement does not make sense.
Work Step by Step
The given equation is
${{a}_{n}}=\frac{{{\left( -1 \right)}^{2n}}}{3n}$
Now we have
$\begin{align}
& {{\left( -1 \right)}^{2n}}={{\left\{ {{\left( -1 \right)}^{2}} \right\}}^{n}} \\
& ={{1}^{n}} \\
& =1
\end{align}$
Thus, the sequence will not be an alternative sequence. Therefore, the statement is illogical.
Therefore, the statement does not make sense.
