Answer
$\frac{\pi}{2}.$
Work Step by Step
Since $\cos\frac{3\pi}{2}=0$, we have
$$\cos^{-1}\left(\cos\frac{4\pi}{3}\right)=\cos^{-1}\left(0\right)=\frac{\pi}{2}.$$
Calculus (3rd Edition)
by Rogawski, Jon; Adams, Colin
Published by
W. H. Freeman
ISBN 10:
1464125260
ISBN 13:
978-1-46412-526-3
Chapter 7 - Exponential Functions - 7.8 Inverse Trigonometric Functions - Exercises - Page 374: 9
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