Answer
No, it does not make sense.
Work Step by Step
Recall that the distributive property is explained as:
$2\left( x+y \right)=2\times x+2\times y$
Here, it shows that the unit outside the bracket is multiplied with each unit inside the bracket.
Now, to calculate $f\left( 50 \right)$ substitute x as 50 in the provided equation and apply above formula:
$\begin{align}
& f\left( 50 \right)=3\left( 50 \right)+2 \\
& =152
\end{align}$
Also, apply distributive property on$\left( 3x+2 \right)50$:
$\begin{align}
& \left( 3x+2 \right)50=\left( 3\times 50 \right)x+2\times 50 \\
& =150x+100
\end{align}$
This value is not equal to the solution$152$. It shows that the obtained value is incorrect.
Thus, the given statement does not make sense.
