Answer
$1$
Work Step by Step
We have $$
\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty}\cos (\pi a_n)= \cos (\pi \lim _{n \rightarrow \infty}a_n)
\\
=\cos (2\pi )=1
$$
Calculus (3rd Edition)
by Rogawski, Jon; Adams, Colin
Published by
W. H. Freeman
ISBN 10:
1464125260
ISBN 13:
978-1-46412-526-3
Chapter 11 - Infinite Series - Chapter Review Exercises - Page 591: 6
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