Answer
See proof
Work Step by Step
We are given the functions:
$f(x)=\dfrac{1}{x}$
$g(x)=\dfrac{1}{x}$
a) Verify that the two functions are inverse functions.
Determine $f\circ g$ and $g\circ f$:
$(f\circ g)(x)=f(g(x))=f\left(\dfrac{1}{x}\right)=\dfrac{1}{\dfrac{1}{x}}=x$
$(g\circ f)(x)=g(f(x))=g\left(\dfrac{1}{x}\right)=\dfrac{1}{\dfrac{1}{x}}=x$
We got:
$(f\circ g)(x)=(g\circ f)(x)=x$,
therefore the two functions are inverse functions.
b) Graph $f$ and $g$ and the line $y=x$.
The graphs of $f$ and $g$ are symmetric with respect to the line $y=x$; therefore $f$ and $g$ are inverse functions.
