Answer
$0.936$ or $93.6\%$
Work Step by Step
We that
$P(\text{an event happens})=1-P(\text{an event does not happen})$
Note that $6.4 \%=0.064$.
Thus, using the formula above gives
$P(\text{No money spent in gambling})=1-P(\text{Money spent in gambling})=1-0.064=0.936$
Hence,
$P(\text{No money spent in gambling})=0.936=93.6\%$