Answer
The second model $g(x)$ is better.
Work Step by Step
Step 1. For year 1990, $x=1990-1950=40$, the first model gives $f(40) = 6.43(1.027)^{40}\approx18.67$ percent
Step 2. The second model gives $g(40) =\frac{40.9}{1+6.6e^{-0.049(40)}}\approx21.20$ percent
Step 3. The bar graph gives a value of $21.3$ percent for year 2014; thus the second model $g(x)$ is better.
