Answer
True
Work Step by Step
If $f(x)=\log_a x$, then $x \gt0$, hence there is no y-intercept.
Since $\log_a 1=0$, then $(1,0)$ is on the graph of $f(x)$.
Thus, the given statement is true.
Precalculus (10th Edition)
by Sullivan, Michael
Published by
Pearson
ISBN 10:
0-32197-907-9
ISBN 13:
978-0-32197-907-0
Chapter 5 - Exponential and Logarithmic Functions - 5.4 Logarithmic Functions - 5.4 Assess Your Understanding - Page 294: 8
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