Answer
TRUE
Work Step by Step
True.
We know that the curl of $\nabla f$ is 0 by definition, and thus div(curl($\nabla f$)=0.
Calculus 8th Edition
by Stewart, James
Published by
Cengage
ISBN 10:
1285740629
ISBN 13:
978-1-28574-062-1
Chapter 16 - Vector Calculus - Review - True-False Quiz - Page 1188: 3
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