Answer
No.
Work Step by Step
Take $\theta =0$; then $\cos 0=1$. Now, $\cos^{-1} 1=0, 2\pi, 4\pi,...$
This does not contradict the inverse function because the inverse cosine function values are restricted to $[0,\pi]$.
Calculus (3rd Edition)
by Rogawski, Jon; Adams, Colin
Published by
W. H. Freeman
ISBN 10:
1464125260
ISBN 13:
978-1-46412-526-3
Chapter 7 - Exponential Functions - 7.8 Inverse Trigonometric Functions - Preliminary Questions - Page 374: 2
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