Answer
Yes.
Work Step by Step
Yes it can be, for example
$$ y'= \frac{x}{y}\Longrightarrow y'=\frac{1}{y} x=f(y)g(x).$$
You can help us out by revising, improving and updating this answer.
Update this answerAfter you claim an answer you’ll have 24 hours to send in a draft. An editor will review the submission and either publish your submission or provide feedback.