Answer
The statement is TRUE.
Work Step by Step
The statement is true because if $f''(x) = 0$ at a point then it is therefore an inflection point on $f(x)$. This statement says that $f''(2) = 0$ so therefore there is an inflection point at x = 2.
Calculus 10th Edition
by Larson, Ron; Edwards, Bruce H.
Published by
Brooks Cole
ISBN 10:
1-28505-709-0
ISBN 13:
978-1-28505-709-5
Chapter 3 - Applications of Differentiation - 3.4 Exercises - Page 194: 78
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