Answer
True.
Work Step by Step
$(\frac{f}{g})(a)=\frac{f(a)}{g(a)}$
We know that $(\frac{f}{g})(a)=0$, thus $\frac{f(a)}{g(a)}=0\\$
Thus $f(a)=0$ because $g(a)$ cannot be zero, thus the statement is true.
Intermediate Algebra for College Students (7th Edition)
by Blitzer, Robert F.
Published by
Pearson
ISBN 10:
0-13417-894-7
ISBN 13:
978-0-13417-894-3
Chapter 2 - Section 2.3 - The Algebra of Functions - Exercise Set - Page 134: 82
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