Answer
.68
Work Step by Step
We know the following:
$$P(\bar{A}=1-P(A)$$
Thus, we find:
$$=1-.32=.68$$
Algebra 2 (1st Edition)
by Larson, Ron; Boswell, Laurie; Kanold, Timothy D.; Stiff, Lee
Published by
McDougal Littell
ISBN 10:
0618595414
ISBN 13:
978-0-61859-541-9
Chapter 10 Counting Methods and Probability - Chapter Review - Page 736: 21
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