A Doll's House
Why does Nora call her husband "a strange man"? Do you think she is justified in using that term? why or why not?
This question pertains to Act 3.
This question pertains to Act 3.
She describes her husband as a stranger because she feels as if she has never known him. In the context of their marriage, she is quite justified in her definition.
Torvald—it was then it dawned upon me that for eight years I had been living here with a strange man, and had borne him three children—."
A Doll's House/ Act 3